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I would stick to your guns on this one. I am sure that this buyer of yours, working for a mortgage banker, had an inling that this conversion might not be legal. Did he ask for CO's up-front? Did he even mention anything to you about this? I am sure that you are wondering about why this loan could be cleared to close and then this comes up. Often it is because the loan was cleared to close from underwriting based on credit/income/assets, now the closing department reviews title and sees this. It is rare that they would even pick this up because generally they don't look at the title report and the appraisal together to see exactly what has a CO and what doesn't, but somewhere along the line this should have been questioned before.
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Sun Aug 8, 2010